Environmental
Science Review
C 21. Weather is a region’s
(A) long-term,
prevailing atmospheric conditions.
(B) number of seasonal
daylight hours.
(C) atmospheric
conditions on a given day.
(D) lack of ocean
currents.
B 22. As cold air sinks,
(A) it expands and cools
further.
(B) it compresses and
warms.
(C) it remains at the
same pressure and temperature.
(D) it always releases
water vapor.
A 23. Elevation is a factor in climate because under most
conditions,
(A) temperature falls as
elevation increases.
(B) temperature rises as
elevation increases.
(C) temperature is not
affected by elevation.
(D) snowfall is unlikely
at high elevation.
D 24. Seasonal changes in daylight hours and climatic conditions
are caused by
(A) the annual change of
distance from sun to Earth.
(B) ocean currents.
(C) lunar phases.
(D) the 23.5º tilt of
Earth’s axis.
B 25. The ozone layer protects living organisms on Earth by
(A) enhancing solar
energy.
(B) blocking solar
ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
(C) blocking solar
infrared (IR) radiation.
(D) preventing escape of
water vapor.
A 26. Ozone holes appear in polar regions
during springtime when ozone destroying
(A) chlorine atoms are
released from polar stratospheric clouds.
(B) chlorine atoms are
captured by polar stratospheric clouds.
(C) CFCs are synthesized in polar stratospheric
clouds.
(D) CFCs magnify ultraviolet light.
D 27. Though CFC production has
been curtailed, the threat to upper atmospheric ozone continues because CFCs
(A) become harmless quickly.
(B) destroy ozone for
only a short time.
(C) persist but stop
destroying ozone.
(D) persist and continue
to destroy ozone for decades.
A 28. Which of the following does not reduce CO2 in the atmosphere?
(A) animal respiration
(C) oceans
(B) tropical rain
forests (D) phytoplankton
D 29. A continuous record of annual average atmospheric CO2
concentrations
from
(A) a steady increase
since 1988. (C) a
steady decrease since 1958.
(B) no change since
1958. (D) a
steady increase since 1958.
C 30. Which of the following would not be a consequence of a rise
in global temperature?
(A) increased frequency
of major droughts
(B) increased frequency
of major storms
(C) increased polar ice
mass
(D) rising sea level
D 31. A certain volume of warm air
(A) always holds less
water vapor than the same volume of cold air.
(B) always holds the
same amount of water vapor as the same volume of cold air.
(C) cannot hold as much
water vapor as the same volume of cold air.
(D) is able to hold more water vapor than the
same volume of cold air.
D 32. Which of the following best describes the effect of a
mountain range on the climate of a region?
(A) The coastal side of the range usually has
high levels of rain.
(B) A desert is often found on the inland side of
the range.
(C) Average temperatures are lower at high
elevations than they are at the base of the mountains.
(D) all of the above
D 33. How long will it take for chlorofluorocarbons released from
Earth’s surface today to reach the stratosphere?
(A) about six months
(B) one to two years
(C) three to five years
(D) 10 to 20 years
C 34. Which of the following best describes measurements of
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels since 1958?
(A) Levels of CO2 were steady until the
mid-1970s, when they began to increase rapidly.
(B) Measurements of CO2 have shown a steady
increase since accurate measurements began in 1958.
(C) CO2 levels have increased overall, although
there are seasonal fluctuations.
(D) CO2 levels have decreased overall, although
there are seasonal fluctuations.
B 35. What are two possible consequences of a rise in global
temperature?
(A) rising sea level and
increased polar ice mass
(B) increased frequency
of major storms and increased frequency of major droughts
(C) buildup of beaches
and disruption of ocean currents
(D) growth of glaciers
and increased snowfall
A 21. An endangered species is
(A) a species in danger
of extinction.
(B) a plant growing on public land
(C) an organism brought to a place where it has not lived before.
(D) a species that has disappeared entirely.
D 22. Many more species are estimated to exist than the 1.7 million
known to science. To which groups, do most of the unknown species belong?
(A) mammals and trees (C) protozoans and algae
(B) bacteria and plants (D) insects
and fungi
C _23. Which would be most effective in slowing the loss of
biodiversity?
(A) freezing fertilized eggs of endangered animals in case these species
become extinct in the wild
(B) setting aside small plots of land in a variety of ecosystems such as
forests, grasslands, and marshes
(C) creating large parks/preserves in biodiversity hotspots
(D) requiring every country to maintain a seed bank
A 24. In what part of the world are the greatest number
of extinctions
occurring?
(A) in tropical rain forests
(B) in deserts
(C) in the
(D) in Europe and the
C 25. The International
Resources (IUCN)
(A) is known for trying to save endangered species through dramatic,
attention-grabbing protests.
(B) is an organization of multinational corporations united to fight
conservation efforts.
(C) is a collaboration of about 200 governmental agencies and 700
private conservation groups from around the world
(D)
was disbanded after the Earth Summit of 1992.
C 26. The fact that organisms are adapted to survive in particular
environments
helps to explain why
(A) captive-breeding programs are often ineffective.
(B) non-native plant species never flourish in new areas.
(C) habitat destruction accounts for most extinctions.
(D) compromise is impossible on environmental issues.
D _27..
Reintroducing the gray wolf in
certain areas of the northwestern
(A) is beneficial for all those working in that area
(B) creates a mutualist interaction between
wolves and elks.
(C) is in accordance with the U.S. Endangered Species Act of 1973.
(D) discourages hunters from hunting other animals.
B 28. Which of the following would not be illegal
under the Endangered Species Act?
(A) capturing a wild animal listed as a threatened species for exhibition in
a zoo, provided the animal was well cared for
(B) digging up an endangered plant in your backyard and selling it
(C) destroying the habitat of an endangered plant during the building of a
federal highway
(D) having a permit to capture an endangered species for research
d_29. What groups of organisms are most in danger of extinction?
(A) those with small populations
(B) those that migrate or need special habitats
(C) those with large populations that breed quickly
(D) both (a) and (b)
D30. What human activities have influenced recent extinction events?
(A) habitat destruction (C) introducing
exotic species
(B) poaching (D) all of the above
C31. Reasons for preserving biodiversity include all of the following
except
(A) isolating unique genetic material so it can be incorporated into existing
crops.
(B) increasing the chances of discovering organisms with medicinal value.
(C) preventing natural evolution.
(D) finding new plants that can supplement the world’s food supply.
D 32. How many species are estimated to be living on Earth?
(A) between 10,000 and 1,000,000
(B) between 500,000 and 1 million
(C) between 1 and 5 million
(D) between 10 and 50 million
C 33. Why are there so many species still unknown to modern science?
(A) Many of these species are found in remote environments.
(B) Smaller species receive less attention than large organisms.
(C) Cataloging these species is a huge task.
(D) all of the above
B 34. Where are many critical biodiversity hotspots located?
(A) cities and developed areas of the world
(B) islands, tropical rain forests, and coastal areas
(C) desert and polar environments
(D) all of the above
D 35. It is often difficult to save
individual species because
(A) small populations are more prone to disease.
(B) inbreeding may result in genetic disorders.
(C) captive species may not reproduce in the wild
(D) All of the above
C _36. Preserving entire ecosystems rather than individual species is a
good conservation strategy because
(A) only endangered species will be saved
(B) developers will have greater access to land
(C) more than one species can be saved
(D) it will not be necessary for environmentalists to study the
ecosystem.
C _37. Where are some of the unique ecosystems of the
(A) in Pacific Northwest and
(B) in the
(C) both (a) and (b)
(D) none of the above
B 38. How did the CITES treaty reduce the slaughter of elephants?
(A) It offered a bounty to tribal leaders for identifying poachers.
(B) It banned imports and exports of all ivory worldwide.
(C) It limited sales of ivory to the antique market.
(D) both (a) and (c)
A 16. An increase in water-borne
diseases could possibly be alleviated by
(A) adequate sewage treatment facilities for growing populations.
(B) very rapid growth of large cities.
(C) sufficient fuelwood
(D) Both (a) and (b)
c 17. Which of the following is true
of human demographic trends?
(A) In preindustrial societies, birth
rates are low and the population
grows rapidly.
(B) When the average number of children born to each woman falls,
the
total population always increases.
(C) When birth rates and death rates are both high, the population
grows slowly, if at all.
(D) Death rates rise in the third stage of the demographic
transition.
D _18. Between 1880 and 1930 human population doubled due to
(A) the Industrial Revolution.
(B) a combination of high birth rates and lowered death rates.
(C) improvements in societal infrastructure and services.
(D) All of the above
c 19. Countries that have entered
the third stage of demographic transition
are most probably characterized by
(A) weak or developing economies.
(B) death rates that far exceed birth rates.
(C) societal conditions that favor smaller families.
(D) populations with a high proportion of young people.
D 20. Which
of the following is a reason that wood is considered a limited
resource in many developing countries?
(A) Wood is used in place of money to buy food.
(B) Fuelwood allows people to purify their water by boiling it.
(C) Excess wood is used to construct shantytowns.
(D) People cut down trees faster than they can grow.
B 21. During Stage 2 of a
population’s demographic transition, the death rate
(A) increases. (C) remains the same.
(B) decreases. (D) is zero.
C 22. Since 1970, fertility rates
have
(A) increased in both more-developed and less-developed countries.
(B) increased in more-developed and decreased in less-developed
countries.
(C) decreased in both more-developed and less-developed countries.
(D) decreased in more-developed and increased in less-developed
countries.
A 23. Which of the following is not a strategy that would reduce
population size?
(A) limiting education for women (C) economic
incentives
(B) public advertising
(D) legal
punishments
d 24. Scientists predict population
sizes by using
(A) survivorship, migration, life expectancy, and replacement structure.
(B) life expectancy, age structure, fertility rate, and migration.
(C) replacement rate, fertility rate, age rates, and survivorship.
(D) age structure, survivorship, fertility rate, and migration.
C 25. Age structure data include all
of the following except
(A) members of a population who are between 5 and 11 years old.
(B) the ratio of males to females in a population.
(C) the amount of population change due to immigration or emigration.
(D) the ratio of older people to younger people in a population.
A 21. The number of wild horses per square kilometer in a prairie is the
horse population’s
(A) density. (C) size
(B) dispersion. (D) birth rate
C 22. If over a long period of time each pair of adults in a population
had only two offspring and the offspring lived to reproduce, the population
would
(A) grow. (C) remain the same
(B) shrink. (D) disperse randomly.
A 23. Which of the following species has the highest reproductive
potential?